Ultrasonic Testing Level 1 (UT-1) General &Specific Examination MCQ questions

ULTRASONIC TESTING (UT)

Ultrasonic Testing Level 1 (UT-1) General Examination

1.      The divergence of an ultrasonic beam is dependent on:

(a) Transducer wavelength and diameter

(b) Test specimen density

(c) The sound wave's angle of incidence

(d) The degree of damping of the ultrasonic transducer

2. When a longitudinal wave is incident upon an inclined interface between zero degrees and the first critical angle:

(a) The sound beam is totally reflected

(b) Only shear waves are produced in the second material

(c) Shear waves and longitudinal waves are produced in the second material

(d) Only longitudinal waves are produced in the second material

3. The piezoelectric material in a search unit which vibrates to produce ultrasonic waves is called:

(a) A backing material

(b) A lucite wedge

(c) A transducer element or crystal

(d) A couplant

4. When a longitudinal wave is incident upon an inclined interface and is refracted at ninety degrees, the angle of the incident longitudinal wave is called:

(a) The Snell constant

(b) The Snell angle

(c) The mode conversion constant

(d) The first critical angle

5. When a longitudinal wave sound beam passes through an acoustic interface at some angle other than zero degrees:

(a) Surface waves are generated

(b) Plate waves are generated

(c) Reflection, refraction and mode conversion will occur

(d) The first critical angle is reached

6. Which of the following can be a source of spurious ultrasonic signals?

(a) Surface roughness of the test piece

(b) Mode conversion within the test piece

(c) Shape or contour of the test piece

(d) All of the above

7. A noisy base line, or hash may result in:

(a) Laminations in the test piece

(b) Discontinuities at an angle to the test piece surface

(c) Large grain size

(d) Fatigue cracks

8. Sound waves which travel on the surface of a solid in a manner similar to waves on a water surface are called:

(a) Rayleigh waves

(b) Shear waves

(c) Primary waves

(d) Compression waves

9. Lamb waves are formed in a part which has:

(a) A thickness greater that about ten wavelengths

(b) A thickness approximately equal to the wavelength

(c) Low acoustic impedance compared to the transducer crystal material

(d) A thickness of about four wavelengths

10. Which type(s) of sound wave modes will propagate through liquids?

(a) Longitudinal

(b) Shear

(c) Surface

(d) All of the above

11. When the motion of the particles of a medium is transverse to the direction of propagation, the wave being transmitted is called a:

(a) Longitudinal wave

(b) Shear wave

(c) Surface wave

(d) Lamb wave

12. Which of the following test frequencies would generally provide the best penetration in a 12 inch thick specimen of coarse-grained steel?

(a) 1.0 MHz

(b) 2.25 MHz

(c) 5.0 MHz

(d) 10 MHz

13. An oscilloscope display in which the screen base line is adjusted to represent the one way distance in a test piece is called a:

(a) A scan display

(b) B scan display

(c) C scan display

(d) D scan display

14. A common use of ultrasonic testing is:

(a) Cleaning

(b) Detecting of sub-surface indications

(c) Determination of the test piece ductility

(d) Communications

15. Sound waves of a frequency beyond the hearing range of the human ear are referred to as ultrasonic waves or vibrations, and the term embraces all vibrational waves of frequency greater than approximately:

(a) 20 kHz

(b) 2 MHz

(c) 2 kHz

(d) 200 kHz

16. Y cut crystals produce:

(a) Longitudinal waves

(b) Shear waves

(c) Lamb waves

(d) Surface waves

17. The cable that connects the ultrasonic instrument to the search unit is specially designed so that one conductor is centred inside another. The technical name for such a cable is:

(a) BX cable

(b) Conduit

(c) Coaxial cable

(d) Ultrasonic conductor cable grade 20

18. As ultrasonic frequency increases:

(a) Wavelength increases

(b) Wavelength decreases

(c) Sound velocity increases

(d) Sound velocity decreases

19. In an A scan presentation, the amplitude of vertical indications on the screen represents the:

(a) Amount of ultrasonic sound energy returning to the search unit

(b) Distance travelled by the search unit

(c) Thickness of material being tested

(d) Elapsed time since the ultrasonic pulse was generated

20. Loss of the test piece back wall echo during scanning may be caused by:

(a) An abnormally homogeneous material structure

(b) A smooth entry surface on the test piece

(c) A discontinuity which is not parallel to the entry surface

(d) An opposite surface which is parallel to the entry surface

21. When a sound beam is reflected:

(a) The angle of reflection is found using Snell's law

(b) The angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence

(c) All the sound energy is reflected unless the acoustic impedance is zero

(d) Beam spread is decreased

22. Which of the following circuits converts electrical energy to ultrasonic energy?

(a) The pulse generator

(b) The transducer

(c) The transformer

(d) The power supply

23. An instrument display in which the horizontal base line represents elapsed time and the vertical deflection represents signal amplitudes is called:

(a) A scan

(b) B scan

(c) C scan

(d) A time line display

24. Which of the following circuits provides short duration, high energy pulses which are  used to excite the transducer?

(a) The pulse generator

(b) The amplifier

(c) The transducer

(d) The clock

25. A cross section view of a test piece is produced by which of the following?

(a) A scan

(b) B scan

(c) C scan

(d) A time line display

26. Echo amplitude losses may be caused by:

(a) Entry surface roughness

(b) Coarse grain size

(c) Discontinuity orientation

(d) All of the above

27. Which of the following is an advantage of using a focused transducer?

(a) The useful range of the transducer is decreased

(b) The useful range of the transducer is increased

(c) Sensitivity to the effects of a rough surface is increased

(d) Greater sensitivity is achieved in the transducer's useable range

28. Which of the following circuits provide current to operate the ultrasonic instrument?

(a) The pulse generator

(b) The amplifier

(c) The power supply

(d) The sweep generator

29. Which of the following is a true statement?

(a) Higher frequencies produce lower sensitivity

(b) Higher frequencies produce longer wavelengths

(c) Thicker crystals produce lower frequency transducers

(d) Longer wavelengths produce higher sensitivity

30. Which type(s) of sound wave modes will propagate through solids?

(a) Longitudinal

(b) Shear

(c) Surface

(d) All of the above

31. The longitudinal wave incident angle at which the refracted shear wave angle equals ninety degrees is called:

(a) The Snell angle

(b) The Snell constant

(c) The first critical angle

(d) The second critical angle

32. The amount of beam divergence from a crystal is primarily dependent on the:

(a) Type of test

(b) Tightness of crystal backing in the search unit

(c) Frequency and crystal size

(d) Pulse length

33. In ultrasonic testing, a liquid coupling medium between the crystal surface and the      part surface is necessary because :

(a) Lubricant is required to minimize wear on the crystal surface

(b) An air interface between the crystal surface and the part surface would almost

completely reflect the ultrasonic vibrations

(c) The crystal will not vibrate if placed directly in contact with the surface of the

part being inspected

(d) The liquid is necessary to complete the electrical circuit in the search unit

34. X cut crystals produce:

(a) Longitudinal waves

(b) Shear waves

(c) Lamb waves

(d) Surface waves

35. Lower frequency transducers are normally used:

(a) In contact testing applications

(b) In angle beam testing applications

(c) In immersion testing applications

(d) Where deeper penetration is required

36. All other factors being equal, which of the following modes of vibration has thegreatest velocity?

(a) Shear wave

(b) Transverse wave

(c) Surface wave

(d) Longitudinal wave

37. In immersion testing, the position of the search unit is often varied to transmit sound into the test part at various angles to the front surface. Such a procedure is referred to as:

(a) Angulation

(b) Dispersion

(c) Reflection testing

(d) Refraction

38. The angle of a refracted shear wave generated as a sound wave passes at an angle through an acoustic interface is dependant on:

(a) The acoustic impedances of the materials of each side of the interface

(b) The frequency of the incident sound wave

(c) The wavelength of the incident sound wave

(d) The hardness of the materials on each side of the interface

39. Which of the following is a likely effect of a rough test piece surface?

(a) An improved ultrasonic signal to noise ratio

(b) A more penetrating sound beam

(c) Loss of discontinuity signal amplitude

(d) Higher test reliability

40. Wavelength is:

(a) The distance from the crest to the next trough of a sound wave

(b) The time required for a sound wave to propagate from a trough to the next trough of a sound wave

(c) The distance a sound wave travels in one second

(d) The distance from trough to trough or from peak to peak of a sound wave

41. The velocity of surface waves is approximately _______________ the velocity of shear waves in the same material.

(a) Two times

(b) Four times

(c) One half

(d) Nine-tenths

42. An ultrasonic instrument control which allows moving an A scan display to the left or right without changing the distance between any echoes displayed is called:

(a) The sweep length or range control

(b) The damping control

(c) The sweep delay

(d) The pulse length control

43. A disadvantage of using natural quartz crystals in a search unit is that:

(a) It will dissolve in water

(b) It is the least effective generator of ultrasonic energy of all commonly used

materials

(c) It easily loses it operating characteristics as it ages

(d) None of the above is correct

44. The formula Sin A/Sin B = VA/VB is known as:

(a) The Fresnell relationship

(b) Snell's law

(c) The law of sines

(d) The critical velocity ratio

45. A 25 MHz search unit would most likely be used during:

(a) Straight beam contact testing

(b) Immersion testing

(c) Angle beam contact testing

(d) Surface wave contact testing

46. A technique in which two transducers are used, one on each side of the test piece, is    called:

(a) Angle beam testing

(b) Modified immersion testing

(c) Through transmission testing

(d) Twinning

47. Sound beam intensity is irregular in the area called:

(a) The near field

(b) The far field

(c) The beam spread

(d) The delay line

48. A more highly damped transducer crystal results in:

(a) Better resolution

(b) Better sensitivity

(c) Lower sensitivity

(d) Poorer resolution

49. The process of comparing an instrument or device with a standard is called:

(a) Angulation

(b) Calibration

(c) Attenuation

(d) Correlation

50. Scattering of an ultrasonic beam is most pronounced when:

(a) Material grain size and wavelength are comparable

(b) Low frequency transducers are used

(c) Large wavelengths are used for ultrasonic testing

(d) None of the above

51. Ultrasonic testing is:

(a) Mechanical energy with a speed of propagation faster than the speed of sound

(b) Sound which has a frequency or pitch above the range of the human ear

(c) The science of discontinuity detection using ultrasonic sound

(d) Mechanical vibrations below the frequency of human hearing

52. Which technique would most likely be used to examine a weld, with the weld cap still in place?

(a) Through transmission testing

(b) Angle beam testing

(c) Straight beam testing

(d) None of the above

53. The maximum frequency usually used for contact testing is:

(a) 1 MHz

(b) 5 MHz

(c) 10 MHz

(d) 25 MHz

54. Higher frequency transducers are normally used:

(a) In contact testing applications

(b) In angle beam testing applications

(c) In immersion testing applications

(d) Where deeper penetration is required

55. Typical ultrasonic testing frequencies are:

(a) 50 kHz to 1 MHz

(b) 200 kHz to 25 MHz

(c) 10 MHz to 100 MHz

(d) 1 MHz to 5 MHz

56. ‘25 million cycles per second’ can also be stated as:

(a) 25 kHz

(b) 2500 kHz

(c) 25 MHz

(d) 25 Hz

57. A disadvantage of using a high frequency ultrasonic transducer is:

(a) It provides a smaller beam angle and better resolving power

(b) It provides a larger beam angle and poorer resolving power

(c) It is scattered more by coarse grained material

(d) It is scattered less by coarse grained material

58. Which of the following circuits provides timing signals to the pulser?

(a) The clock

(b) The amplifier

(c) The pulse generator

(d) The sweep generator

59. Which of the following search units would contain the thinnest quartz crystal?

(a) A 1 MHz search unit

(b) A 5 MHz search unit

(c) A 15 MHz search unit

(d) A 25 MHz search unit

60. With longitudinal wave incident at angles between the first and second critical angles:

(a) The sound beam is totally reflected

(b) Only shear waves are produced in the second material

(c) Shear waves and longitudinal waves are produced in the second material

(d) Only longitudinal waves are produced in the second material

61. Sound velocity is described by which of the following relationships?

(a) Wavelength times frequency

(b) Wavelength divided by frequency

(c) Wavelength divided acoustic impedance

(d) Acoustic impedance divided by density

62. The relationship between the longitudinal wave incident angle and the refracted shear wave angle is defined by:

(a) Snell's law

(b) Snell's constant

(c) The law of acoustics

(d) Fraunhofer’s law

63. Acoustic impedance is defined by which of the following relations?

(a) Material density/wavelength

(b) Material density × velocity

(c) Velocity/wavelength

(d) Velocity × wavelength

64. The upper limit of human hearing is normally considered to be about:

(a) 12 kHz

(b) 16 kHz

(c) 20 kHz

(d) 30 kHz

65. Reference standards containing a series of flat bottom holes of the same diameter at

different depths in each block are called?

(a) Area-amplitude blocks

(b) Distance-amplitude blocks

(c) IIW blocks

(d) Sizing blocks

66. During ultrasonic testing by the immersion method, it is frequently necessary to angulate the search unit when a discontinuity is located at an angle in order to:

(a) Avoid a large number of back reflections that could interfere with a normal test pattern

(b) Obtain a maximum response if the discontinuity is not originally oriented perpendicular to the ultrasonic beam

(c) Obtain a discontinuity indication of the same height as the indication from the flat bottomed hole in a reference block

(d) Obtain the maximum number of entry surface reflections

67. Which of the following transducer materials is the most efficient receiver of ultrasonic energy?

(a) Lead metaniobate

(b) Quartz

(c) Lithium sulphate

(d) Barium titanate

68. An ultrasonic wave in which particle displacement is 90 degrees to the direction of wave propagation is called a:

(a) Longitudinal wave

(b) Shear wave

(c) Compressional wave

(d) Plate wave

69. An advantage of using lithium sulphate in search units it that:

(a) It is one of the most efficient generators of ultrasonic energy

(b) It is one of the most efficient receivers of ultrasonic energy

(c) It is insoluble

(d) It can withstand temperatures as high as 700ºC

70. Moving a search unit over a test surface either manually or automatically is referred

to as:

(a) Scanning

(b) Attenuating

(c) Angulating

(d) Resonating

ULTRASONIC TESTING LEVEL 1 (UT-1) SPECIFIC EXAMINATION

1. Which of the following materials of the same alloy is most likely to produce the greatest amount of sound attenuation over a given distance?

(a) A hand forging

(b) A coarse grained casting

(c) An extrusion

(d) The attenuation is equal in all materials

2. The ability to separate echos from reflectors close together in depth is called:

(a) Resolution

(b) Attenuation

(c) Accuracy

(d) Sensitivity

3. Greater depth of penetration in coarse grained material may be achieved using:

(a) More sweep delay

(b) Higher frequencies

(c) Less sweep delay

(d) Lower frequencies

4. Lower frequency transducers produce:

(a) Deeper penetration, greater attentuation and less beam spread

(b) Deeper penetration, less attentuation and greater beam spread

(c) Greater beam spread but higher sensitivity and resolution

(d) Less beam spread but lower sensitivity and resolution

5. Spurious indications might be caused by which of the following?

(a) Mode conversion from beam spread in a long specimen

(b) Surface waves generated during straight beam testing

(c) A test piece with a smooth machined surface

(d) All of the above

6. The portion of a test piece which is represented by the CRT screen area from zero to

the rightmost edge of the initial pulse is called:

(a) The dead zone

(b) The near field

(c) The near zone

(d) The far zone

7. The depth of penetration of surface waves is approximately:

(a) One wavelength

(b) Three wavelengths

(c) 1/2 wavelength

(d) The total part thickness

8. An ultrasonic test using a straight beam contact search unit is being conducted through the thickness of a flat part such as a plate. This test should detect:

(a) Laminar-type flaws with major dimensions parallel to the rolled surface

(b) Transverse-type flaws with major dimensions at right angles to the rolled surface

(c) Radial flaws with major dimensions along length but radially oriented to the rolled surface

(d) None of the above

9. The first critical angle is defined as the longitudinal wave incident angle which results in:

(a) A refracted longitudinal wave of ninety degrees

(b) A refracted shear wave of ninety degrees

(c) Complete reflection of the shear wave

(d) None of the above

10.The number of complete waves which pass a given point in a given period of time (usually one second) is referred to as the:

(a) Amplitude of a wave motion

(b) Pulse length of a wave motion

(c) Frequency of a wave motion

(d) Wavelength of a wave motion

11. The speed of sound in a given material depends on:

(a) The specific acoustic impedance of the material

(b) The acoustic impedance and density of the material

(c) The density and elasticity of the material

(d) The piezo-electric resistance of the material

12. A screen pattern containing a large number of low-level indications (often reffered to as ‘hash’) could be caused by:

(a) A crack

(b) A large inclusion

(c) Coarse grained material

(d) Fine grained material

13. In an A scan presentation, the horizontal base line represents the:

(a) Amount of refracted ultrasonic sound energy

(b) Distance traveled by the search unit

(c) Elapsed time or distance

(d) None of the above

14. An ultrasonic instrument control which is used to expand or contract the horizontal     base line of an A scan display is called:

(a) The sweep length or range control

(b) The damping control

(c) The sweep delay

(d) The pulse length control

15. In a basic ultrasonic test pattern (A scan) for contact testing, the initial pulse (assume

no sweep delay is used):

(a) Is the high indication on the extreme left side of the screen that represents the entry surface of the inspected part

(b) Is the first pulse that occurs near the right side of the screen and represents the opposite boundary of the inspected part

(c) Is an indication that appears and disappears during screening

(d) Is always the second pulse from the left on the viewing screen

16. A term used in ultrasonics to express the rate at which sound waves pass through various substances is:

(a) Frequency

(b) Velocity

(c) Wave length

(d) Pulse length

17. Transducer focal lengths are normally specified as:

(a) Distance in steel

(b) Distance in aluminium

(c) Distance in air

(d) Distance in water

18. The second critical angle is defined as the longitudinal wave incident angle which

results in:

(a) A refracted longitudinal wave of ninety degrees

(b) A refracted shear wave of ninety degrees

(c) Complete reflection of the sound beam

(d) None of the above

19. Spurious or nonrelevant indications might be suspected if:

(a) Indications are unusually consistent in amplitude and appearance

(b) There are strong indications in localised areas

(c) The indications are localised and repeatable

(d) None of the above

20. A disadvantage of lithium sulfate as a transducer material is that:

(a) It is an inefficient receiver of ultrasonic energy

(b) It is soluble in water

(c) It is not piezo- electric

(d) It has extremely coarse grain structure

21. An advantage of using a ceramic transducer in search units is that:

(a) It is one of the most efficient generators of ultrasonic energy

(b) It is one of the most efficient receivers of ultrasonic energy

(c) It has a very low mechanical impedance

(d) It can withstand temperatures as high as 700oC

22. The three most common modes of sound vibration are:

(a) Longitudinal, compressional, and transverse waves

(b) Longitudinal, transverse and rayleigh waves

(c) Transverse, longitudinal and shear waves

(d) Transverse, shear waves and rayleigh waves

23. A larger diameter crystal results in:

(a) Greater beam spread

(b) Lower penetrating power

(c) Less beam spread

(d) Greater penetrating power

24. Entry surface resolution is a characteristic of an ultrasonic testing system which defines its ability to:

(a) Detect discontinuities oriented in a direction parallel to the ultrasonic beam

(b) Detect discontinuities located in the center of a forging containing a fine metallurgical structure

(c) Detect minute surface scratches

(d) Detect discontinuities located just beneath the entry surface in the part being tested

25. Higher frequency transducers produce which of the following?

(a) Greater beam spread, sensitivity and resolution

(b) Greater sensitivity, resolution and penetration

(c) Greater penetration, attenuation and resolution

(d) Greater sensitivity, resolution and attenuation

26. In immersion testing, verification that the search unit is normal to a flat entry surface is indicated by:

(a) Maximum reflection from the entry surface

(b) Proper wavelength

(c) Maximum amplitude of the initial pulse

(d) Elimination of water multiples

27. Which of the following is true?

(a) Velocity = frequency/wavelength

(b) Frequency = velocity × wavelength

(c) Velocity = wavelength/frequency

(d) Wavelength=velocity/frequency

28. Most commercial ultrasonic testing is accomplished using frequencies between:

(a) 1 and 25 kHz

(b) 0.2 and 25 MHz

(c) 1 and 1 000 kHz

(d) 15 and 100 MHz

29. The longitudinal wave incident angle which results in formation of a rayleigh wave is called:

(a) Normal incidence

(b) The first critical angle

(c) The second critical angle

(d) Any angle above the first critical angle

30. An ultrasonic testing technique in which the transducer element is not parallel to the test surface is called:

(a) Angle beam testing

(b) Immersion testing

(c) Contact testing

(d) Through-transmission testing

31. In the same material, shear wave velocity is:

(a) Approximately 1/2 longitudinal wave velocity

(b) Approximately twice longitudinal wave velocity

(c) Approximately 1/4 longitudinal wave velocity

(d) Approximately four times longitudinal wave velocity

32. Another name for a compression wave is a:

(a) Lamb wave

(b) Shear wave

(c) Longitudinal wave

(d) Transverse wave

33.Under most circumstances, which of the following frequencies would result in the

 best resolving power?

(a) 1 MHz

(b) 5 MHz

(c) 10 MHz

(d) 25 MHz

34.The most useful range of incident longitudinal wave angles for ultrasonic testing is:

(a) Normal incidence to the first critical angle

(b) First critical angle to the second critical angle

(c) Second critical angle to the third critical angle

(d) Above the third critical angle

35. Ultrasonic testing of material where the search unit is in direct contact with the material being tested may be:

(a) Straight beam testing

(b) Surface wave testing

(c) Angle beam testing

(d) All of the above

36. The echo on the cathode ray tube (CRT) which represents the far boundary of the material being tested is called:

(a) Hash

(b) The initial pulse

(c) The ‘main bang’

(d) The back wall echo

37. A standard block which can be used to calibrate an instrument for an angle beam range calibration is:

(a) Area-amplitude blocks

(b) Distance-amplitude blocks

(c) V1/A2 block

(d) Beam spread block

38. The ability to detect echos from small reflectors is called:

(a) Resolution

(b) Attenuation

(c) Accuracy

(d) Sensitivity

39.When the motion of the particles of a medium is parallel to the direction of propagation, the wave being transmitted is called a:

(a) Longitudinal wave

(b) Shear wave

(c) Surface wave

(d) Lamb wave

40. In contact testing, the entry surface indication is sometimes referred to as:

(a) The initial pulse

(b) The ‘main bang’ or transmitter pulse

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of the above

41. A second name for Rayleigh waves is:

(a) Shear waves

(b) Longitudinal waves

(c) Transverse waves

(d) Surface waves

42. Sound beam intensity decreases expontentially with distance in the area called:

(a) The near field

(b) The far field

(c) The dead zone

(d) The delay line

43. A test method employing two seperate search units on opposite surfaces of the material being tested is called:

(a) Contact testing

(b) Surface wave testing

(c) Through-transmission testing

(d) Lamb wave testing

44. Which of the following is not (!) a requirement of a couplant?

(a) Easy application

(b) Highly penetrating

(c) Harmless both to the test piece and transducers

(d) Excludes all air between transducer and test piece

45. A plan view representation of a test piece is produced by which of the following?

(a) A scan

(b) B scan

(c) C scan

(d) A time line display

46. A widening of the front surface indication, when testing a rough surface, is caused by:

(a) Defects in the test piece

(b) A coarse grain structure

(c) A partial reflection of ultrasonic beam side lobe energy

(d) Ultrasonic instrument malfunction

47. When a vertical indication has reached the maximum signal height which can be displayed or viewed on the CRT of an ultrasonic instrument, the indication is said to have reached its:

(a) Distance-amplitude height

(b) Absorption level

(c) Vertical level

(d) Limit of resolution

48.A material used between the face of a search unit and the test surface to permit or improve the transmission of ultrasonic vibrations from the search unit to the material being tested is called:

(a) A wetting agent

(b) A couplant

(c) A acoustic transmitter

(d) A lubricant

49.When an ultrasonic beam passes through the interface between two dissimilar materials at an angle, a new angle of sound travel is formed in the second material due to:

(a) Attenuation of ultrasound

(b) Transmission of ultrasound

(c) Compression of ultrasound

(d) Refraction

50. The velocity of sound waves is primarily dependent on:

(a) The pulse length

(b) The frequency

(c) The material in which the sound is being transmitted and the mode of vibration

(d) None of the above

51. Piezoelectric ability is the property of a material to:

(a) Become electrically conductive when heated above its critical temperature

(b) Generate sound when heated above its critical temperature

(c) Vibrate at high frequency when subjected to a temperature gradient

(d) Produce an electric current when deformed and vice versa

52. The boundary between two different materials which are in contact with each other is

called:

(a) A rarefactor

(b) A refractor

(c) An interface

(d) A marker

53. An ultrasonic insrument control which is used to adjust the sharpness of the CRT        screen display is called:

(a) Astigmatism or focus

(b) Pulse repetition rate

(c) Pulse energy

(d) Gain

54. A disadvantage of using a low frequency ultrasonic transducer is:

(a) It provides better penetration in most materials

(b) It provides poorer penetration in most materials

(c) It provides a smaller beam angle and poorer resolving power

(d) It provides a larger beam angle and poorer resolving power

55. As transducer crystal thickness decreases:

(a) Transducer wavelength increases

(b) Frequency decreases

(c) Frequency increases

(d) None of the above

56. On the area-amplitude ultrasonic standard test blocks, the flat-bottomed holes in the blocks are:

(a) All of the same diameter

(b) Different in diameter, increasing by 1/64 inch increments from the No. 1 block to the No. 8 block

(c) Largest in the No. 1 block and smallest in the No. 8 block

(d) Drilled to different depths from the front surface of the test block

57. An ultrasonic instrument control which is used to expand or contract the horizontal     base line of an A scan display is called:

(a) The sweep length or range control

(b) The damping control

(c) The sweep delay

(d) The pulse length control

58. Greater depth of penetration in coarse grained material may be achieved using:

(a) More sweep delay

(b) Higher frequencies

(c) Less sweep delay

(d) Lower frequencies

59. A disadvantage of using a low frequency ultrasonic transducer is:

(a) It provides better penetration in most materials

(b) It provides poorer penetration in most materials

(c) It provides a smaller beam angle and poorer resolving power

(d) It provides a larger beam angle and poorer resolving power

60. A disadvantage of using a high frequency ultrasonic transducer is:

(a) It provides a smaller beam angle and better resolving power

(b) It provides a larger beam angle and poorer resolving power

(c) It is scattered more by coarse grained material

(d) It is scattered less by coarse grained material

61. When a longitudinal wave sound beam passes through an acoustic interface at some angle other than zero degrees:

(a) Surface waves are generated

(b) Plate waves are generated

(c) Reflection, refraction and mode conversion occur

(d) The first critical angle is reached

62. The angle of a refracted shear wave generated as a sound wave passes at an angle        through an acoustic interface is depentant on:

(a) The acoustic impedances of the materials on each side of the interface

(b) The frequency of the incident sound wave

(c) The wavelength of the incident sound wave

(d) The hardness of the materials on each side of the interface

63. The purpose of the couplant is to:

(a) Match impedances between the transducer and test piece

(b) Absorb stray reflectors

(c) Clean the test piece so a more efficient test may be continued

(d) Lock the ultrasonic scanner into place prior to testing

64. Which of the following can be a source of spurious ultrasonic signals?

(a) Surface roughness of the test piece

(b) Mode conversion within the test piece

(c) Shape or contour of the test piece

(d) All of the above

65. When a sound beam is reflected:

(a) The angle of reflection is found using Snell's law

(b) The angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence

(c) All the sound energy is reflected unless the acoustic impedanmce is zero

(d) Beam spread is decreased

66. Sound beam intensity decreases expontentially with distance in the area called:

(a) The near field

(b) The far field

(c) The dead zone

(d) The delay line

67. The ability to detect echoes from small reflectors is called:

(a) Resolution

(b) Attenuation

(c) Accuracy

(d) Sensitivity

68. The ability to separate echoes from reflectors close together in depth is called:

(a) Resolution

(b) Attenuation

(c) Accuracy

(d) Sensitivity

69.Which of the following transducer materials is the most efficient receiver of ultrasonic energy?

(a) Lead metaniobate

(b) Quartz

(c) Lithium sulfate

(d) Barium titanate

70. A display which shows the initial pulse and the front surface echo superimposed would be considered:

(a) An immersion test

(b) An A scan

(c) A contact test

(d) A B scan

71. A display which shows the initial pulse and the front surface echo with a fairly wide space between the two would be considered:

(a) An immersion test

(b) An A scan

(c) A contact test

(d) A B scan

72. When conducting an immersion test, the water path distance must be controlled so that:

(a) Spurious signals are not created by surface waves on the test piece

(b) The (water path distance)/(diameter) ratio does not result in asymmetric standing waves

(c) The test piece discontinuity indications appear between the first front and first back surface echos

(d) The second front surface echo does not appear on the CRT screen between the first front and first back surface echos

73. Bubblers and wheel transducers are considered:

(a) Immersion techniques

(b) Modified immersion techniques

(c) Contact techniques

(d) Offset techniques

ULTRASONIC TESTING LEVEL 1 ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS

GENERAL ANSWERS			SPECIFIC ANSWERS
1-A	31-D	61-A	1-B	31-A	61-C
2-C	32-C	62-A	2-A	32-C	62-A
3-C	33-B	63-B	3-D	33-D	63-A
4-D	34-A	64-C	4-B	34-A	64-D
5-C	35-D	65-B	5-A	35-D	65-B
6-D	36-D	66-B	6-B	36-D	66-B
7-C	37-A	67-C	7-A	37-C	67-D
8-A	38-A	68-B	8-A	38-D	68-A
9-B	39-C	69-B	9-A	39-A	69-C
10-A	40-D	70-A	10-C	40-C	70-B
11-B	41-D		11-C	41-D	71-A
12-A	42-C		12-C	42-B	72-C
13-B	43-B		13-C	43-C	73-B
14-B	44-B		14-A	44-B
15-A	45-B		15-A	45-C
16-B	46-C		16-B	46-C
17-C	47-A		17-A	47-C
18-B	48-A		18-B	48-B
19-A	49-B		19-A	49-D
20-C	50-A		20-B	50-C
21-B	51-B		21-A	51-D
22-B	52-B		22-B	52-C
23-A	53-B		23-C	53-A
24-A	54-C		24-D	54-D
25-B	55-D		25-D	55-C
26-D	56-C		26-A	56-B
27-D	57-C		27-D	57-A
28-C	58-A		28-B	58-D
29-C	59-D		29-C	59-C
30-D	60-B		30-A	60-C